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A 14 year-old female with idiopathic scoliosis is undergoing a posterior spinal
fusion under general anesthesia. The best reason for administering intravenous
clonidine to this patient would be:


a) Antifibrinolysis

b) Analgesia

c) Controlled hypotension

d) Sedation

e) Neuroprotection


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==Answer==
Answer c.

Clonidine is a useful adjunct to minimize perioperative blood loss by
reducing blood pressure.

==Notes==
<references />

:This question originally printed in the [http://www.amazon.com/Justin-L.-Lockman/e/B00FLG5AEE/ref=ntt_dp_epwbk_0 Pediatric Anesthesiology Review Topics] kindle book series, and appears courtesy of Naerthwyn Press, LLC.
==Keywords==
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